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I tried to read the wikipedia article that answers this question, but found it difficult to understand Typically, the onset (first part) of a syllable is weightless, and thus does not contribute any morae to the syllable. Ditto with the related lse question
Is the concept of syllables pronuncia. A single syllable can have one or more morae The ages, races, and population density of mora county, new mexico tell a story
Understand the shifts in demographic trends with these charts visualizing decades of population data.
Get the answers here, with data on cases and infection rates What that means with respect to the definitions it puts forward, i don't know. Due to persistent and intensive language contact, indian languages share many features This prompted emeneau 1 to describe these languages as belonging to a common linguistic area or sprachbund.
A mora is an object which allows the possibility of representational contrastiveness, so if a language has short and long vowels, that can be represented via one versus two moras on a vowel. Why not just light/medium/heavy?!) is there an example from generative phonology that explains this Sometimes all this theoretical stuff confuses me The pitch may fall across both morae, or mostly on one or the other (depending on the sequence of sounds)—that is, the first mora may end with a high falling pitch, or the second may begin with a (low) falling pitch, but the first mora will be considered accented regardless
A mora is basically a unit of syllabic weight used in the analysis of a language, that may or may not constitute a full syllable on its own
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